Superlatives
"For then shall be great tribulation, such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time, no, nor ever shall be. And except those days should be shortened, there should no flesh be saved; but for the elect's sake those days shall be shortened."
-- Matthew 24: 21-22
The NASB describes the great tribulation of verse 21 as "...such as has not occurred since the beginning of the world until now, nor ever shall." The NIV calls it "...unequaled from the beginning of the world until now--and never to be equaled again." The same superlative language is used in Mark 14: 19. The Old Testament book of Daniel (12: 1) refers to a time of distress "...such as never was since there was a nation even to that same time..."
Many claim that this prophecy was fulfilled in 70 A.D. when Titus invaded Jerusalem. But were its conditions satisfied then, or does it refer to a time yet future? Note the literal precision of Matthew 24: 2, which was fulfilled in 70 A.D. Why would the nature of the prophetic word transform from literal to hyperbolic within a few short verses? It wouldn't.
Yet in A.D. 70, while there was certainly distress and tribulation, it was not a time of distress "unequaled from the beginning of the world...and never to be equaled again." It was not a time in which all flesh was on the verge of extinction. And those days were not suddenly cut short.
The events of Matthew 24: 21-22 are yet future. How far in the future, nobody knows except the Lord. They precede the Lord's return to earth to cut short the time of distress and rescue believers who are on the earth at that time.
That is what Matthew 24: 15-31 tells us. We just have to read what it says.
posted by herewegoagain at 9:31 PM
3 Comments:
Would you respond similarly to other passages that have long been hotly argued whether literal or metaphorical? For example, a continuing debate among the christian scientists at my university is whether or to take the seven days of creation described as literal or metaphorical, and the physics department insists that it only fits with "actual" science by being interpreted metaphorically.
Then there are the passages in Revelation that entire denominations think are metaphorical--even prophecies already fulfilled that we are living out today.
While for me the two above examples are pretty clear, I wonder about gray areas like 1 Corinthians, when Paul says women should not be allowed to speak in churches--not even to ask questions, but should ask the question of their husbands. How are we to apply a verse like that literally to today's world?
By your reference to "the christian scientists" at your university, I assume you mean some of the scientists at your university who are christians. A vivid six-day creation ex nihilo by the omnipotent Creator is actually a very scientific explanation for the universe.
The comparison to Genesis 1 is apt because many of the same theologians who accept a literal 6-day creation here in the first book of the Bible then insist on a metaphorical view of the thousand years described in Revelation 20: 2-6.
There is no question that Genesis 1 refers to literal days, including a description of the duration of each day from "evening" to "morning". In Exodus 20:11 a direct parallel is made between the six days of creation and the six-day work week.
(continued)
Concerning your question about 1 Corinthians 14: 34-35, I think this is not really an issue of the literal vs. the metaphorical, but rather a question of application. In other words, is Paul giving a specific instruction to that specific church to resolve an ongoing issue there, or is he giving a universal instruction to the entire church throughout the entire church age?
This scripture and 1 Timothy 2: 12 appear to restrict pastoral and teaching roles in the assembled church service to men, and to apply to the church universal. Perhaps I'll post on that subject at some point.
Post a Comment
<< Home